The single most essential pre-requisite of the Coase paper where he gives birth, economically, to the firm, is the idea of a transaction cost. I wanted to do a posting on this. Transaction costs have been long understood in economics. I personally remember first discovering the existence of a bid and an ask in a market. It was shockingly late in my life, since I have until then no direct relation to any market. My first thought was that it seemed quite unfair, like somebody somewhere was making free money on this.
Ok, the set up is this. A couple of participants wander into a market. The market is a market for a some particular good. One participant comes to sell this good, and another comes to buy it. Let us pretend that they both are happy to take the price, $p_t$, which the market tells them the good is worth right then. So the buyer hands over $p_t$ to the seller at the same time as the seller hands over the good to the buyer. They exchange pleasantries and head home. Deal done. Simple, right? Well, that's how I used to think how it worked. But it is more complex than that.
If there literally was a single seller, then it isn't really a market, is it? That seller could set his price with not many competing pressures on them to make it any lower. But then this isn't a point about transaction costs per se but just about the price in general. The competition introduced by a healthy market may cause the price to come down in general. How does a multitude of sellers affect our trio of transaction costs?
Well, all along I've pretended we start with just one buyer and one seller - clearly this isn't sustainable - if we now imagine a marketplace of sellers, surely this can't exist in any sense with just a single buyer - no, we need a set of buyers. But still, we have two types only, the buyer type and the seller type.
Implicit in this market place is the assumption that some sellers are going to be different from other sellers - in terms of the price, and maybe in terms of the trio of transaction costs too. Otherwise is a market of cloned sellers really any different from a single seller with exclusive pricing advantage? If each seller sells differently, then the possibility exists that some markets will have better and worse prices for the good.
I'm trying to think of this in the context of a world with no firms. So there is nobody to go out of business. Just a set of sellers with different prices. Buyers now have higher search and information costs - who to buy from? Surely there would be variability in the bargaining costs but I wonder if I could hold on to the possibility that the average bargaining cost remained the same? Let's say yes. But to the average buyer, this isn't any good since he doesn't know that this seller has better or worse than average bargaining costs associated. This variance in the bargaining costs, represents one element of the search and information costs. So I'm thinking search and information costs may be more fundamental than bargaining costs. Again, I'm hanging on to the thought that enforcement is minimal for the same reasons. So I want bargaining costs to be negligible too, even in the presence of variability, which is an element of search costs. And enforcement to be negligible. The presence of a marketplace for the good increases the informational/search costs for the average buyer.
Well, the average buyer, that non-existent person, maybe doesn't care about the search cost? They get the averagely good deal. A bit like the passive index fund investor. But his non-zero embedded search cost is a function of how much searching individuals actually do. Imagine no-one bothered finding the best deal. They walk into the market place and randomly pick a market. This wouldn't be a healthily running market. No competition would be possible to drive down average prices.
I notice in passing there is a natural narrative order to these transaction costs - the approach, the deal, the delivery. Imagine, wrongly, that all these costs were equally burdensome across a buyer and a seller. If that really were the case, then these sunk costs would net out and become irrelevant to the price. There is clearly an asymmetry in this relationship, but still, some fraction of the gross costs residing in this two participant world resides with one party and the remainder with the other. If, on the other hand, some of those transaction costs were due to some set of third parties, T then this netting would not be possible. The degree to which I can equalise and minimise the differences between B and S in a two participant world, then the more I can claim that the Coasean justification for the birth of the firm to be weaker.
Clearly, you look to reality to see likely candidates for T. The host for the ground on which the market takes place. Agents for the ground who advertise its presence and value. Third party contract enforcers, creators of contracts, the list could go on. If the lion's share of the transaction costs reside with T then there's less opportunity for this netting and equlibration of transaction costs. T is nothing other than cultural institutions, practices, participants with structural and supporting roles in the market event. And given that our starting point is this rather fantastic and unreal institution-lite free market, I feel justified in seeking a kind of Coasean world where T's role is minimised.
To summarise, I've looked at the case where there is no market making, no promise to buy back, an institution lite world of seller and buyer trading goods on the spot market with negligible transaction costs which partly net off as a way of making it difficult for Coase to justify the firm as a 'solution' to the phony problem domain he sets up in his classic paper. Now on to the paper itself.
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